Conclusion: “rightfully British”? The law seems to be whoever smacks the other in the teeth and takes it by force, so I suppose that’s accurate.
However, having had a settlement in the island, Argentina’s claim is as valid as the UKs, and they just got smacked in the teeth so my verdict is that Argentina takes over administrative control over the Islands up until such time as they meet again in a world cup.
Yes it did. Argentina’s “Venticinco de Mayo” revolution in 1810 made it independent, though a formal declaration happened only in 1816 (technically “the United provinces of the Rio del la Plata”, that’s being nitpicky).
What no, I’m talking of the 1830s. The British came back and expelled the Argentinian settlement, and settled back in.
They came back because the Argentinians occupied it.
I see two different reasons for a claim for Argentina: that they settled when there was no permanent occupation, like the French and the British did originally, and that they inherited Spain’s claim (who purchased the French settlement) following their independence from Spain.
My post was mostly going for humour, but if we’re looking at it a bit seriously, England’s claim is a colonial one, a legacy from a bygone era. They will inevitably have to cede the islands.
Let’s recap islands history:
Deserted, no permanent population.
French set up a settlement.
English makes another, fight the French.
Spain buys French port, fights British.
Britain leaves.
Spain leaves.
Deserted, no permanent population.
Argentina sets up a settlement.
England comes back, fight them off.
Conclusion: “rightfully British”? The law seems to be whoever smacks the other in the teeth and takes it by force, so I suppose that’s accurate.
However, having had a settlement in the island, Argentina’s claim is as valid as the UKs, and they just got smacked in the teeth so my verdict is that Argentina takes over administrative control over the Islands up until such time as they meet again in a world cup.
Argentina didnt exist yet
Yes it did. Argentina’s “Venticinco de Mayo” revolution in 1810 made it independent, though a formal declaration happened only in 1816 (technically “the United provinces of the Rio del la Plata”, that’s being nitpicky).
🤔 Why did England come back? Are you saying Argentina won the war in the 1980s?
What no, I’m talking of the 1830s. The British came back and expelled the Argentinian settlement, and settled back in.
They came back because the Argentinians occupied it.
I see two different reasons for a claim for Argentina: that they settled when there was no permanent occupation, like the French and the British did originally, and that they inherited Spain’s claim (who purchased the French settlement) following their independence from Spain.
My post was mostly going for humour, but if we’re looking at it a bit seriously, England’s claim is a colonial one, a legacy from a bygone era. They will inevitably have to cede the islands.